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Submitted by : RobinGaylord Submitted on : Mar 02,2005 3:41:02 pm ballot title: Do you think Political Correctness is the new Fascism?ballot number:69091
Here's the dictionary definition of Fascism: 1. A system of government marked by centralization of authority under a dictator, stringent socioeconomic controls, suppression of the opposition through terror and censorship, and typically a policy of belligerent nationalism and racism. 2. A political philosophy or movement based on or advocating such a system of government. 3. Oppressive, dictatorial control. So, is having the common courtesy not to use bigoted language the same as the above definitions? I know there have been frivolous lawsuits and they should stop - but honestly how often has someone been convicted of just using verbal epithets? The answer is never, because otherwise every Klan rally, every radio broadcast from Michael Savage, every Neo-nazi parade in Idaho would result in arrest or suit against those speaking. In Ann Arbor, the liberal hot-bed of the midwest, the police formed a barrier around and protected a Klan rally on public grounds. That means that it cost us tax money to have that filth spewed out in the public square, and though most of us wanted them to scram, we were happy to let them do it because we believe in free speech. When litigation is brought, it is in situations where the language clearly added to or revealed discrimination against a person in hiring, promotion, housing, education or whatever. Is is fascist to protect someone from discrimination in those areas? "political correctness" where I grew was called common courtesy, or "the golden rule" - you don't want others berating your family, heritage, beliefs, partners, whatever - then don't do it to them. No, but it is a way of limiting freedom of speech and should be ignored/ridiculed constantly. |